whoever win the popular vote wins all the electoral votes, so say its 51% to 49% the candidate that got 51% gets all the electoral votes for that state
each states get a different number of electoral votes. so even if more people vote for romney, more electoral votes might go to obama. but electoral votes means winning.
the electoral votes aren't assigned proportionally. if 49% of a state's population votes for a republican candidate and 51% vote for a democratic one, all of the electoral votes aren't split, they all go in the democratic column. but those republican votes are still tabulated as part of the overall popular vote.
my dad just explained it to me. he gave me this example:
suppose the votes in california (and this is just a fake example) were %49 for romney and %51 for obama, obama gets all 55 votes even though the popular vote was pretty close, but in other (smaller) states, romney will lead by way more so like 71% for romney and %29 obama, so way more people of that state voted for romney, in this case but since their population is smaller, there will be less electoral votes going to romney. does that make sense? its because its the "winner takes all" sort of thing.
i just mean in general. why come up with this complicated system?
the system doesn't even make sense because the electoral votes are based off of the whole state's population but the whole population doesn't vote. it seems much more reasonable to just have it as a simple poll
the problem w/ the us being one of the oldest democracies is that our system is more antiquated than everyone else's. when the us was founded the separate states were obsessed with their rights and wouldn't join the union if they weren't allowed to govern themselves, and the electoral college is one of the way states rights are protected. back in the day the electoral college also made it constitutionally possible for the rich old white dudes in power to override a vote if the people voted for something stupid. that wouldn't happen now without a huge outcry but that's part of why the system was instituted.
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(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:01 am (UTC)(link)is it cuz of gerrymandering?
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(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:11 am (UTC)(link)no subject
(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:11 am (UTC)(link)suppose the votes in california (and this is just a fake example) were %49 for romney and %51 for obama, obama gets all 55 votes even though the popular vote was pretty close, but in other (smaller) states, romney will lead by way more so like 71% for romney and %29 obama, so way more people of that state voted for romney, in this case but since their population is smaller, there will be less electoral votes going to romney. does that make sense? its because its the "winner takes all" sort of thing.
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(Anonymous) - 2012-11-07 04:15 (UTC) - Expandhttp://ambotherambo.tumblr.com/post/35178825957/explaining-how-presidential-voting-works-for
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(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:08 am (UTC)(link)why not just have it be simple popularity
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(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:09 am (UTC)(link)no subject
(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:11 am (UTC)(link)the system doesn't even make sense because the electoral votes are based off of the whole state's population but the whole population doesn't vote. it seems much more reasonable to just have it as a simple poll
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(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:10 am (UTC)(link)no subject
(Anonymous) 2012-11-07 04:12 am (UTC)(link)http://teensforliberty.com/blog/2011/02/17/is-america-a-democracy-or-a-constitutional-republic/
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